RBI Exam General Awareness

GENERAL AWARENESS
  
1. In economic field, very often, the term ? Price Index? is used. If the Price Index in May 1985 was 355,
then what does it mean?
A) The prices on the average were more than three and
a half times as much.
B) The prices were 255 per cent higher than what they
were in 1970-71 (the earlier base year).
C) As compared to the earlier base year, May 1985 was
full of various commodities and the supply was 300 times
better than the earlier years.
Which of these statements is/are true ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) Only B
2. Various measures are used by the State to control
the inflation. These can be
A) Price control
B) Monetary measures
C) Fiscal measures
Which of these is/are known as the suppressed inflation ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A & B both
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) A & B both
3. The High Court of which of the following States set
aside the decision of the State Government to overturn the
creation of nine districts and four commissioner divisions
(created by the earlier Government) ?
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Orissa
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu
(5) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: ( 2 ) Orissa
4. The Government of India recently issued norms for
Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs). Which of the following
is NOT TRUE in this regard ?
(1) The companies would have a pre-issue paid
up capital and free reserves of at least 500 million US $.
(2) Average turnover of the company should be
500 million US $.
(3) The norm of average turnover of 500 million
US $ should be during the three preceding years of
financial performance.
(4) The company should have declared a dividend
of not less than 10% during the last five years.
(5) All such companies need prior nod of SEBI.
Ans: ( 4 ) The company should have declared a
dividend of not less than 10% during the last five years.
5. Who among the following has issued various
accounting standards to be followed by the various
companies in India?
(1) Registrar of Companies
(2) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(3) Accounting Standards Board of ICAI
(4) Indian Bureau of Standards
(5) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Ans: ( 4 ) Indian Bureau of Standards
6. How much amount an individual resident can now
borrow from the close relatives residing outside India (As
per new RBI norms)?
(1) US $ 100000 only or its equivalent
(2) US $ 150000 only or its equivalent
(3) US $ 200000 only or its equivalent
(4) US $ 250000 only or its equivalent
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) US $ 200000 only or its equivalent
7. Growth of credit in agriculture, despite its
priority sector status, has remained a persistent problem
in the economy. According to the RBI, domestic banks must
allocate what percent of their advances to the agricultural
sector (including direct and indirect finances)?
(1) 8%
(2) 12%
(3) 15%
(4) 18%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
8. In July 2003, the banks were asked to reduce their
lending rate to agricultural credit to he extent of ? (for
loans below Rs. 50,000).
(1) 6.5%
(2) 7.5%
(3) 9%
(4) 10%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 6.5%
9. In the financial transaction of the Government, we
often hear a term ?Deficit Financing?. Deficit Financing
is
A) Practised whenever Government expenditure exceeds
the receipts from the public.
B) That part of the Government expenditure which is
met by drawing down the cash balance of the Government held
in RBI or in State treasuries.
C) That part of the Government expenditure which is
required to be compensated by printing new notes/supply of
fresh currency notes in the market.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only C
(4) Only B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C
10. In commercial and trade world, very often, we hear
a term ?Free Trade?. What does it really mean?
A) It means no restriction on the movement of goods
between two countries or a group of countries.
B) It means no custom duty or any other tax or duty on
the goods supplied to each other by the countries.
C) It means exchange of goods between the countries to
overcome shortage of particular type of goods.
D) It means a particular nation is allowed to sell its
goods all over the world without any restriction on the
quantity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only C & D
(4) Only C & A
(5) Only D
Ans: ( 2 ) Only B & C
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct
pertaining to the problems with agricultural credit?
A) Private sector banks are not given any target of
agricultural lending. Hence, they do not lend anything to
farmers.
B) Majority of farmers are not able to afford the cost
of borrowing or not able to guarantee their loan from the
banks.
C) Most of the Co-operative Banks are defunct. Hence,
they are not lending to the farmers.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
12. India?s population is likely to reach at which
level during 2026 A.D. ?
(1) 1 billion
(2) 1.2 billion
(3) 1.4 billion
(4) 1.6 billion
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 1 billion
13. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is
established with ?
(1) NABARD
(2) RBI
(3) SBI
(4) ICICI Bank
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) SBI
14. Why was the name of B.K. Chaturvedi recently in the
news?
(1) He has taken over as the India?s High
Commissioner to U.K.
(2) He will be the new Cabinet Secretary in the
Union Government.
(3) He will be the new Deputy Speaker of the
Lok Sabha
(4) He will be our permanent representative in
the UNO
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) He will be our permanent
representative in the UNO
15. India is set to have a revised or new series of the
Index of Wholesale Price (WPI) very soon, as the base year
will now be
(1) 1990-91
(2) 1985-86
(3) 1989-90
(4) 1993-94
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 1985-86
16. The farm income insurance scheme announced by the
Union Government is presently being run in how many
districts ?
(1) 20
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 150
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 20
17. As per the reports of the Census 2001, the Prime
reason for male migration to urban areas has been
employment and business. But what has been the reason of
migration of the young females to urban areas ?
A) Marriage
B) Educational Purposes
C) Job Opportunities
Which of these is/are the correct reasons(s)?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C
18. As per the migratory trend seen in the recent past,
the outflow of people from which of the following States is
the maximum ?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Kerala
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Uttar Pradesh
19. Which of the following is likely to convert itself
into a bank ?
(1) SIDBI
(2) ECGC
(3) IDFC
(4) SEBI
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) SIDBI
20. As per the census 2001, the number of million plus
cities in India is
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 35
(4) 42
(5) 52
Ans: ( 2 ) 24
21. As per the reports from the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, the three important causes of mortality in
India are
(1) Tuberculosis, Typhoid and Malaria
(2) Malaria, Polio, Cancer
(3) Cancer, Heart ailments, Polio
(4) Polio, Malaria, Heart ailments
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Polio, Malaria, Heart ailments
22. As per the recent decision taken by the Government
of India, now the students after passing which of the
following examinations are not required to have a
stamp ?Emigration check required? on their passports?
(1) MBA from IIMs or any other university
(2) B.E. or B.Tech. degree
(3) Class XII
(4) Medical degree in Ayurved System
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Medical degree in Ayurved System
23. About 35 multistate Co-operative Banks are likely
to come under the Banking Regulation Act as the Government
is going to issue an ordinance to that effect in days to
come. It was required to be done as
A) Co-operative Banks are in bad shape and their
restructuring is very much needed.
B) RBI recommended that Government should issue an
ordinance to this effect.
C) The Supreme Court of India has issued an order
which says that RBI does not have authority to issue
licences to multistate Co-operative Banks.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
24. Which of the following schemes/programmes is/are
now part of the ?Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yozana?
(SJSRY) ?
A) Nehru Rozgar Yojana (NRY)
B) Urban Basic Service for the Poor (UBSP)
C) Prime Minister?s Integrated Urban Poverty
Eradication Programme (PMIUPEP)
D) India Mahila Yojana
Choose the correct alternative :
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only D
(5) Only A, B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) Only A, B & C
25. Which of the following is the aim of the ?Jan
Shree Bima Yojana? of the Union Government launched in 2000?
(1) To provide food security to the rural poor.
(2) To provide Insurance Security to the people
living below poverty line
(3) To provide Insurance cover to the women
(4) To provide Insurance cover to the children
whose parents died in the earthquake in Bhuj a few years
back
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
26. Which of the following is the objective of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
A) To minimize imbalances in quantum and duration of
the international trade.
B) To provide subsidy to the third world countries so
that they may complete with developed nations.
C) To ensure exchange rate stability.
Which of these objectives is correct ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B
(4) Only A & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
27. The performance of Public Sector Banks during the
year 2003-04 has been
A) Slightly lower than during 2002-03
B) Much better than the year 2002-03 for all PSBs
C) Same as it was in the year 2002-03
D) Slightly better for some banks like SBI and its
Associates.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only D
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
28. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh recently in a meeting
expressed his desire that an early and smooth Value Added
Tax (VAT) is very much needed in the country. How the
introduction of VAT will be helpful for a country like
India?
A) VAT will avoid cascading of taxes.
B) VAT is expected to enhance revenues in the medium
term.
C) Some State Governments may have to lose a
substantial amount of Sales Tax as the Centre will have a
greater share in taxes, but the same will be compensated
later on by providing subsidies on certain items.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) A, B and C
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
29. Which of the following statements(s) is/are true
about the Member of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme (MPLADS) ?
A) The scheme was introduced in the year 1977.
B) Under the scheme, every MP can spend Rs. 2 crore
every year on some developmental activity in his/her area.
C) Around 6.8 lakh works were recommended by the MPs
during the past years out of which about 4.5 lakh were
completed by the year 2002.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B
(4) Only B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only B
30. According to the World Trade Organisation (WTO),
Anti Dumping measures can be imposed by a country in which
of the following situations ?
A) When hazardous nuclear and radioactive waste is
dumped in the sea or coastal area of a country by some
other nation.
B) When some products that have been dumped in the
market in such a way that they cause material injury to
domestic industry.
C) When some substandard agricultural products are
dispatched to a country to meet the balance of payment
requirements.
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Only A & B
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) Only B & C
31. Which of the following is the one major function of
the finance Commission set up by the Union Government once
every five years ?
A) To determine the share of the States and the Centre
out of the Tax receipts.
B) To determine the minimum support prices of all
major agricultural commodities.
C) To introduce the new taxes to be levied by the
State and the Union governments.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only B
(4) Only C
(5) Only A
Ans: ( 5 ) Only A
32. Which of the following States is adjudged superior
to most State in India in human development?
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Gujarat
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Karnataka
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
33. Which of the following statement(s) about
industrial output of India during the recent past is/are
true (in last few months)?
A) Industrial output surges 9.4%.
B) Food production was increased by 15%.
C) Manufacturing growth was 3.33%.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C
34. What are the objectives of the Task Force, out of
A, B, C and D given below, set up to suggest the modalities
for the implementation of interlinking of rivers?
A) To augment irrigation potential.
B) To fulfill the growing need of water.
C) To generate additional power.
D) To facilitate transportation in the country through
inland waterways.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only C & D
(4) Only D & A
(5) All A, B, C & D
Ans: ( 5 ) All A, B, C & D
35. Which of the following statement(s) about India?s
forex kitty is/are true?
A) India?s forex kitty grows fastest in the world.
B) India?s forex reserves registered a 169% growth
during two and a half years period ended in April 04.
C) India?s forex reserves growth established a huge
lead over the economics of the countries like U.K., USA and
Japan.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) All the three
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
36. Which of the following correctly defines what
National Income means ?
A) It is the total earning of the employees of the
Central Government, all the State governments, all MLAs,
MPs and Ministers, etc. put together.
B) It is aggregate factor income which arises from the
current production of goods and services by the economy of
a country.
C) It is the total value of the goods produced in
various production centers run by the State and Union
Governments.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
37. The increase in the world population has been
accompanied by a major shift in its distribution. The
share of the developed countries in the world population is
approximately.
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 33%
(5) 38%
Ans: ( 4 ) 33%
38. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A) A substantial part of the population of the South
Asian countries do not have access to the safe drinking
water.
B) The pattern of water consumption in the region is
about 95% in agriculture and remaining 5% in industries.
No water for domestic use.
C) The time is such that almost one out of the four
hospital beds is occupied by a patient who is ill because
of water pollution.
(1) A & C only
(2) Only A
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) A, B & C
Ans: ( 2 ) Only A
39. Which of the following is not the short name of a
programme designed for the employment generation?
(1) EAS
(2) PMIUPEP
(3) TRYSEM
(4) CAPART
(5) SJGSY
Ans: ( 1 ) EAS
40. Which of the following is NOT a part of the
Annapurna Yojana?
A) Every family will be provided 10 kg of food grains
if they are a family identified as living below poverty
line.
B) All those who were getting pension as Senior
Citizens are covered under the Scheme.
C) Only women are covered under this scheme.
(1) Only a
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) All A, B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) All A, B & C
41. The RBI announces Credit Policy twice in a year.
What is the significance of the Credit Policy. Which of
the following is/are the CORRECT statement(s) in this
regard?
A) It is a measure to influence the amount of money
and credit in Indian economy.
B) Credit Policy is a control on the rate of interest
offered by the Banks on their products.
C) It is an indication to the market that how they can
plan their production decisions.
D) It is the green signal to the Union Government that
they can plan their budget and introduce new taxes if they
so desire.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only A, B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Only A, B & C
42. The RBI has four chief weapons to control or
maintain desired equilibrium in the economy of the
country. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(1) Open market operations
(2) Reserve requirement (banks have to keep a
part of deposits in reserve)
(3) Repo rate
(4) Bank rate
(5) Introducing new taxes/levies, etc.
Ans: ( 3 ) Repo rate
43. The Government of India is seriously thinking to
repeal which of the following acts?
(1) FERA
(2) FEMA
(3) Rent Control Act
(4) POTA
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) POTA
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct in
respect of the exports of jewellery from India (Pick up
correct statements)?
A) Last year, the export of gems and jewellery from
India reached at a level of US $ 10 billion for the first
time.
B) India got top position in exports market of gems
and jewellery because of higher unit value realization for
cut and polished diamonds in which India dominates.
C) China & South Africa are the India?s two major
competitors in the field of exports of gems and jewellery.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only C
(5) Only A & B
Ans: ( 4 ) Only C
45. Approximately, what percent of the total oil
production of the world is produced by OPEC nations ?
(1) 33%
(2) 45%
(3) 50%
(4) 65%
(5) 75%
Ans: ( 4 ) 65%
46. Which of the following countries announced that it
will help Pakistan to build a nuclear power plant ?
(1) S. Korea
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) France
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) S. Korea
47. Noise pollution is measured in
(1) Microns
(2) Nautical miles
(3) Ohms
(4) Amperes
(5) Decibels
Ans: ( 5 ) Decibels
48. The reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the
Parliament is extended for a period of how many years after
2000?
(1) 5 years
(2) 6 years
(3) 8 years
(4) 10 years
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) 10 years
49. Which of the following non-trade issues has taken a
dominance in WTO agenda?
(1) Patents
(2) Genetically-modified crops
(3) Free trade
(4) Environment
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
50. Which of the following cities is famous for trading
of diamonds in India?
(1) Jaipur
(2) Surat
(3) Mumbai
(4) Bangalore
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

Union Bank Of India PO Exam 2008

Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2008

Reasoning : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-9-2008)

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the onethat does
not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once
in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in
that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that
code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you may come’ and
‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five
numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her
brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On
which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there
between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than
only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks
among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above
arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the
eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately
preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four
combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations
correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark
the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the
group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 δ
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as
the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©δ
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and δ are used with the
following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R δ K
Conclusions : I. K δ J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T δ H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F δ T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E δ B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and
second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the
right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The
resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the
questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the
left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be
subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first
number.
50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of
these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark
answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last
year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual
examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)