RBI Exam General Awareness

GENERAL AWARENESS
  
1. In economic field, very often, the term ? Price Index? is used. If the Price Index in May 1985 was 355,
then what does it mean?
A) The prices on the average were more than three and
a half times as much.
B) The prices were 255 per cent higher than what they
were in 1970-71 (the earlier base year).
C) As compared to the earlier base year, May 1985 was
full of various commodities and the supply was 300 times
better than the earlier years.
Which of these statements is/are true ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) Only B
2. Various measures are used by the State to control
the inflation. These can be
A) Price control
B) Monetary measures
C) Fiscal measures
Which of these is/are known as the suppressed inflation ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A & B both
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) A & B both
3. The High Court of which of the following States set
aside the decision of the State Government to overturn the
creation of nine districts and four commissioner divisions
(created by the earlier Government) ?
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Orissa
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu
(5) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: ( 2 ) Orissa
4. The Government of India recently issued norms for
Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs). Which of the following
is NOT TRUE in this regard ?
(1) The companies would have a pre-issue paid
up capital and free reserves of at least 500 million US $.
(2) Average turnover of the company should be
500 million US $.
(3) The norm of average turnover of 500 million
US $ should be during the three preceding years of
financial performance.
(4) The company should have declared a dividend
of not less than 10% during the last five years.
(5) All such companies need prior nod of SEBI.
Ans: ( 4 ) The company should have declared a
dividend of not less than 10% during the last five years.
5. Who among the following has issued various
accounting standards to be followed by the various
companies in India?
(1) Registrar of Companies
(2) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(3) Accounting Standards Board of ICAI
(4) Indian Bureau of Standards
(5) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Ans: ( 4 ) Indian Bureau of Standards
6. How much amount an individual resident can now
borrow from the close relatives residing outside India (As
per new RBI norms)?
(1) US $ 100000 only or its equivalent
(2) US $ 150000 only or its equivalent
(3) US $ 200000 only or its equivalent
(4) US $ 250000 only or its equivalent
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) US $ 200000 only or its equivalent
7. Growth of credit in agriculture, despite its
priority sector status, has remained a persistent problem
in the economy. According to the RBI, domestic banks must
allocate what percent of their advances to the agricultural
sector (including direct and indirect finances)?
(1) 8%
(2) 12%
(3) 15%
(4) 18%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
8. In July 2003, the banks were asked to reduce their
lending rate to agricultural credit to he extent of ? (for
loans below Rs. 50,000).
(1) 6.5%
(2) 7.5%
(3) 9%
(4) 10%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 6.5%
9. In the financial transaction of the Government, we
often hear a term ?Deficit Financing?. Deficit Financing
is
A) Practised whenever Government expenditure exceeds
the receipts from the public.
B) That part of the Government expenditure which is
met by drawing down the cash balance of the Government held
in RBI or in State treasuries.
C) That part of the Government expenditure which is
required to be compensated by printing new notes/supply of
fresh currency notes in the market.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only C
(4) Only B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C
10. In commercial and trade world, very often, we hear
a term ?Free Trade?. What does it really mean?
A) It means no restriction on the movement of goods
between two countries or a group of countries.
B) It means no custom duty or any other tax or duty on
the goods supplied to each other by the countries.
C) It means exchange of goods between the countries to
overcome shortage of particular type of goods.
D) It means a particular nation is allowed to sell its
goods all over the world without any restriction on the
quantity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only C & D
(4) Only C & A
(5) Only D
Ans: ( 2 ) Only B & C
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct
pertaining to the problems with agricultural credit?
A) Private sector banks are not given any target of
agricultural lending. Hence, they do not lend anything to
farmers.
B) Majority of farmers are not able to afford the cost
of borrowing or not able to guarantee their loan from the
banks.
C) Most of the Co-operative Banks are defunct. Hence,
they are not lending to the farmers.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
12. India?s population is likely to reach at which
level during 2026 A.D. ?
(1) 1 billion
(2) 1.2 billion
(3) 1.4 billion
(4) 1.6 billion
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 1 billion
13. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is
established with ?
(1) NABARD
(2) RBI
(3) SBI
(4) ICICI Bank
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) SBI
14. Why was the name of B.K. Chaturvedi recently in the
news?
(1) He has taken over as the India?s High
Commissioner to U.K.
(2) He will be the new Cabinet Secretary in the
Union Government.
(3) He will be the new Deputy Speaker of the
Lok Sabha
(4) He will be our permanent representative in
the UNO
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) He will be our permanent
representative in the UNO
15. India is set to have a revised or new series of the
Index of Wholesale Price (WPI) very soon, as the base year
will now be
(1) 1990-91
(2) 1985-86
(3) 1989-90
(4) 1993-94
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 1985-86
16. The farm income insurance scheme announced by the
Union Government is presently being run in how many
districts ?
(1) 20
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 150
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 20
17. As per the reports of the Census 2001, the Prime
reason for male migration to urban areas has been
employment and business. But what has been the reason of
migration of the young females to urban areas ?
A) Marriage
B) Educational Purposes
C) Job Opportunities
Which of these is/are the correct reasons(s)?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C
18. As per the migratory trend seen in the recent past,
the outflow of people from which of the following States is
the maximum ?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Kerala
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Uttar Pradesh
19. Which of the following is likely to convert itself
into a bank ?
(1) SIDBI
(2) ECGC
(3) IDFC
(4) SEBI
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) SIDBI
20. As per the census 2001, the number of million plus
cities in India is
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 35
(4) 42
(5) 52
Ans: ( 2 ) 24
21. As per the reports from the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, the three important causes of mortality in
India are
(1) Tuberculosis, Typhoid and Malaria
(2) Malaria, Polio, Cancer
(3) Cancer, Heart ailments, Polio
(4) Polio, Malaria, Heart ailments
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Polio, Malaria, Heart ailments
22. As per the recent decision taken by the Government
of India, now the students after passing which of the
following examinations are not required to have a
stamp ?Emigration check required? on their passports?
(1) MBA from IIMs or any other university
(2) B.E. or B.Tech. degree
(3) Class XII
(4) Medical degree in Ayurved System
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Medical degree in Ayurved System
23. About 35 multistate Co-operative Banks are likely
to come under the Banking Regulation Act as the Government
is going to issue an ordinance to that effect in days to
come. It was required to be done as
A) Co-operative Banks are in bad shape and their
restructuring is very much needed.
B) RBI recommended that Government should issue an
ordinance to this effect.
C) The Supreme Court of India has issued an order
which says that RBI does not have authority to issue
licences to multistate Co-operative Banks.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
24. Which of the following schemes/programmes is/are
now part of the ?Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yozana?
(SJSRY) ?
A) Nehru Rozgar Yojana (NRY)
B) Urban Basic Service for the Poor (UBSP)
C) Prime Minister?s Integrated Urban Poverty
Eradication Programme (PMIUPEP)
D) India Mahila Yojana
Choose the correct alternative :
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only D
(5) Only A, B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) Only A, B & C
25. Which of the following is the aim of the ?Jan
Shree Bima Yojana? of the Union Government launched in 2000?
(1) To provide food security to the rural poor.
(2) To provide Insurance Security to the people
living below poverty line
(3) To provide Insurance cover to the women
(4) To provide Insurance cover to the children
whose parents died in the earthquake in Bhuj a few years
back
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
26. Which of the following is the objective of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
A) To minimize imbalances in quantum and duration of
the international trade.
B) To provide subsidy to the third world countries so
that they may complete with developed nations.
C) To ensure exchange rate stability.
Which of these objectives is correct ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B
(4) Only A & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
27. The performance of Public Sector Banks during the
year 2003-04 has been
A) Slightly lower than during 2002-03
B) Much better than the year 2002-03 for all PSBs
C) Same as it was in the year 2002-03
D) Slightly better for some banks like SBI and its
Associates.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only D
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
28. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh recently in a meeting
expressed his desire that an early and smooth Value Added
Tax (VAT) is very much needed in the country. How the
introduction of VAT will be helpful for a country like
India?
A) VAT will avoid cascading of taxes.
B) VAT is expected to enhance revenues in the medium
term.
C) Some State Governments may have to lose a
substantial amount of Sales Tax as the Centre will have a
greater share in taxes, but the same will be compensated
later on by providing subsidies on certain items.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) A, B and C
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
29. Which of the following statements(s) is/are true
about the Member of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme (MPLADS) ?
A) The scheme was introduced in the year 1977.
B) Under the scheme, every MP can spend Rs. 2 crore
every year on some developmental activity in his/her area.
C) Around 6.8 lakh works were recommended by the MPs
during the past years out of which about 4.5 lakh were
completed by the year 2002.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B
(4) Only B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only B
30. According to the World Trade Organisation (WTO),
Anti Dumping measures can be imposed by a country in which
of the following situations ?
A) When hazardous nuclear and radioactive waste is
dumped in the sea or coastal area of a country by some
other nation.
B) When some products that have been dumped in the
market in such a way that they cause material injury to
domestic industry.
C) When some substandard agricultural products are
dispatched to a country to meet the balance of payment
requirements.
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Only A & B
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) Only B & C
31. Which of the following is the one major function of
the finance Commission set up by the Union Government once
every five years ?
A) To determine the share of the States and the Centre
out of the Tax receipts.
B) To determine the minimum support prices of all
major agricultural commodities.
C) To introduce the new taxes to be levied by the
State and the Union governments.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only B
(4) Only C
(5) Only A
Ans: ( 5 ) Only A
32. Which of the following States is adjudged superior
to most State in India in human development?
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Gujarat
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Karnataka
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
33. Which of the following statement(s) about
industrial output of India during the recent past is/are
true (in last few months)?
A) Industrial output surges 9.4%.
B) Food production was increased by 15%.
C) Manufacturing growth was 3.33%.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C
34. What are the objectives of the Task Force, out of
A, B, C and D given below, set up to suggest the modalities
for the implementation of interlinking of rivers?
A) To augment irrigation potential.
B) To fulfill the growing need of water.
C) To generate additional power.
D) To facilitate transportation in the country through
inland waterways.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only C & D
(4) Only D & A
(5) All A, B, C & D
Ans: ( 5 ) All A, B, C & D
35. Which of the following statement(s) about India?s
forex kitty is/are true?
A) India?s forex kitty grows fastest in the world.
B) India?s forex reserves registered a 169% growth
during two and a half years period ended in April 04.
C) India?s forex reserves growth established a huge
lead over the economics of the countries like U.K., USA and
Japan.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) All the three
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A
36. Which of the following correctly defines what
National Income means ?
A) It is the total earning of the employees of the
Central Government, all the State governments, all MLAs,
MPs and Ministers, etc. put together.
B) It is aggregate factor income which arises from the
current production of goods and services by the economy of
a country.
C) It is the total value of the goods produced in
various production centers run by the State and Union
Governments.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
37. The increase in the world population has been
accompanied by a major shift in its distribution. The
share of the developed countries in the world population is
approximately.
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 33%
(5) 38%
Ans: ( 4 ) 33%
38. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A) A substantial part of the population of the South
Asian countries do not have access to the safe drinking
water.
B) The pattern of water consumption in the region is
about 95% in agriculture and remaining 5% in industries.
No water for domestic use.
C) The time is such that almost one out of the four
hospital beds is occupied by a patient who is ill because
of water pollution.
(1) A & C only
(2) Only A
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) A, B & C
Ans: ( 2 ) Only A
39. Which of the following is not the short name of a
programme designed for the employment generation?
(1) EAS
(2) PMIUPEP
(3) TRYSEM
(4) CAPART
(5) SJGSY
Ans: ( 1 ) EAS
40. Which of the following is NOT a part of the
Annapurna Yojana?
A) Every family will be provided 10 kg of food grains
if they are a family identified as living below poverty
line.
B) All those who were getting pension as Senior
Citizens are covered under the Scheme.
C) Only women are covered under this scheme.
(1) Only a
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) All A, B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) All A, B & C
41. The RBI announces Credit Policy twice in a year.
What is the significance of the Credit Policy. Which of
the following is/are the CORRECT statement(s) in this
regard?
A) It is a measure to influence the amount of money
and credit in Indian economy.
B) Credit Policy is a control on the rate of interest
offered by the Banks on their products.
C) It is an indication to the market that how they can
plan their production decisions.
D) It is the green signal to the Union Government that
they can plan their budget and introduce new taxes if they
so desire.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only A, B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Only A, B & C
42. The RBI has four chief weapons to control or
maintain desired equilibrium in the economy of the
country. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(1) Open market operations
(2) Reserve requirement (banks have to keep a
part of deposits in reserve)
(3) Repo rate
(4) Bank rate
(5) Introducing new taxes/levies, etc.
Ans: ( 3 ) Repo rate
43. The Government of India is seriously thinking to
repeal which of the following acts?
(1) FERA
(2) FEMA
(3) Rent Control Act
(4) POTA
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) POTA
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct in
respect of the exports of jewellery from India (Pick up
correct statements)?
A) Last year, the export of gems and jewellery from
India reached at a level of US $ 10 billion for the first
time.
B) India got top position in exports market of gems
and jewellery because of higher unit value realization for
cut and polished diamonds in which India dominates.
C) China & South Africa are the India?s two major
competitors in the field of exports of gems and jewellery.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only C
(5) Only A & B
Ans: ( 4 ) Only C
45. Approximately, what percent of the total oil
production of the world is produced by OPEC nations ?
(1) 33%
(2) 45%
(3) 50%
(4) 65%
(5) 75%
Ans: ( 4 ) 65%
46. Which of the following countries announced that it
will help Pakistan to build a nuclear power plant ?
(1) S. Korea
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) France
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) S. Korea
47. Noise pollution is measured in
(1) Microns
(2) Nautical miles
(3) Ohms
(4) Amperes
(5) Decibels
Ans: ( 5 ) Decibels
48. The reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the
Parliament is extended for a period of how many years after
2000?
(1) 5 years
(2) 6 years
(3) 8 years
(4) 10 years
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) 10 years
49. Which of the following non-trade issues has taken a
dominance in WTO agenda?
(1) Patents
(2) Genetically-modified crops
(3) Free trade
(4) Environment
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these
50. Which of the following cities is famous for trading
of diamonds in India?
(1) Jaipur
(2) Surat
(3) Mumbai
(4) Bangalore
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

OBC PO Exam 2009

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 13-12-2009)

Reasoning : Solved Paper

1. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2*©’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘β64@%’. How is
‘DELAY’ written in that code ?
(A) β4*2%
(B) β4@2%
(C) %42@β
(D) %4@2β
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ARILT using each letter
only once in that word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
3. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D ?
(A) Cousin
(B) Nephew
(C) Aunt
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 4–6) The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below—
394 632 783 576 895
4. If the positions of the first and the second digit within each number are interchanged, which of
the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 632
(B) 783
(C) 576
(D) 895
(E) 394
Ans : (E)
5. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which of the
following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3 ?
(A) 895
(B) 394
(C) 576
(D) 632
(E) 783
Ans : (A)
6. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third
digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576
(B) 895
(C) 783
(D) 394
(E) 632
Ans : (A)
7. If ‘A’ is coded as 1, ‘B’ as 3, ‘C’ as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of
the word ‘FAZED’ ?
(A) 81
(B) 79
(C) 77
(D) 80
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN : HEAT ?
(A) Water : Drink
(B) Light : Night
(C) Teach : Student
(D) Air : Breathe
(E) Food : Hunger
Ans : (B)
9. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V.T types faster than R S types faster than V. Who
amongst the five of them types the fastest ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) S
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. If ‘B ×C’ means ‘B, is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’
means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P ×Q’ mean ?
(A) M is the brotherinlaw of Q
(B) M is the uncle of Q
(C) M is the soninlaw of Q
(D) M is the motherinlaw of Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–17) Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below
it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer,
Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but
not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk.
E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q.
The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a
Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an
Agriculture Officer.
11. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. What is the profession of C ?
(A) Terminal operator
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Economist
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. For which Bank does B work ?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) L
(D) Either M or S
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S ?
(A) Clerk
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Terminal Operator
(D) Forex Officer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. For which Bank does D work ?
(A) Q
(B) L
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct ?
(A) forex OfficerM
(B) ClerkL
(C) agriculture OfficerQ
(D) agriculture OfficerS
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 18 –23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements :
Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are boulders.
Some boulders are mountains.
All hills are mountains.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are mountains.
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements :
Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are boulders.
Some boulders are mountains.
All hills are mountains.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are mountains.
II. Some hills are boulders.
III. Some boulders are stones.
IV. All mountains are hills.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. Statements :
All arrows are bows.
All bows are swords.
Some swords are daggers.
All daggers are knives.
Conclusions :
I. All knives are bows.
II. Some swords are knives.
III. All bows are arrows.
IV. All arrows are swords.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Statements :
Some pianos are violins.
Some violins are drums.
All drums are guitars.
No guitar is a flute.
Conclusions :
I. Some guitar are pianos.
II. Some drums are flutes.
III. Some pianos are drums.
IV. No flute is a drum.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only either II or IV follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Statements :
Some airplane are helicopters.
All helicopters are gliders.
All gliders are kites.
All kites are balloons.
Conclusions :
I. Some helicopters are balloons.
II. All kites are airplanes.
III. All balloons are gliders.
IV. All helicopters are kites.
(A) Only IV follows
(B) Only either II or III follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Statements :
All kings are warriors.
All soldiers are warriors.
All sentries are warriors.
Some sentries are soldiers.
Conclusions :
I. Some sentries are kings.
II. All warriors are soldiers.
III. Some warriors are sentries.
IV. Some soldiers are kings.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
23. Statements :
All plastics are glasses.
Some glasses are wood.
Some woods are metals.
All metals are cloths.
Conclusions :
I. Some cloths are wood.
II. Some woods are both cloths and glasses.
III. Some glasses are plastics.
IV. Some cloths are metals.
(A) None follows
(B) All follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 24–25) Read the information given below carefully and then answer the questions that
follow. In a certain code language :
I. ‘she likes apples’ is written as ‘pic sip dip’.
II. ‘parrot likes apples lots’ is written as ‘dip pic tif nit’.
III. ‘she likes parrots’ is written as ‘tif sip dip’.
24. How is ‘parrot’ written in that code language ?
(A) pic
(B) dip
(C) tif
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. Which of the following statements is not necessary in order to answer the above question ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) All are required
(E) Either II or III
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26 –30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below :
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W
26. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (A)
28. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement ?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above
arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
Ans : (C)
29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above
arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6
Ans : (A)
30. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One
of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements. Mark answer—
(A) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statement I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statement I and II are effects of some common cause.
31. I. The government has amended tax laws to boost exports.
II. The export sector has been passing through difficult times due to heavy tax burdens.
Ans : (B)
32. I. Budgetary allocation for building a better railway network e.g. constructing new railway
lines has increased.
II. There has been a substantial drop in the number of passenger opting for air travel.
Ans : (D)
33. I. The production of pulses has dropped for the third consecutive year.
II. India has decided to import pulses this year.
Ans : (A)
34. I. The Bank has provided a link on its website to obtain feedback
from customers.
II. Customers have been complaining about poor services in the Bank’s branches.
Ans : (B)
35. I. Indian citizens are willing to incur the cost of using environment friendly technology.
II. Many countries are taking steps to cut their carbon emissions.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below is given a passange followed by several possible inferences which can
be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the
context of
the passage and decide upon the degree of its truth or falsity. Mark answer—
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statements of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) if the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is likely to be
true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts the
given facts.
The pace of recruitment has unmistakably picked up in the last few months. After two abysmal
quarters the business sentiment has turned positive. A flurry of hiring activity has been observed across
the manufacturing sector and the IT and ITES sector catering to telecom and legal process
outsourcing. The advent of new players and an aggressive expansion of telecom giants has seen a
bullish outlook for the industry with a promise of exponential growth. But is the worst over for
businesses across the spectrum ? Firms are going back to the drawing board and dusting off their
plans to see if there is scope for atleast incremental hiring in specific domains where they want to build
expertise. Besides that there are few signs to show that there is a broad based revival in the market.
36. Companies in various sectors have projected higher business growth in the near future.
Ans : (B)
37. The telecom sector has experienced negative growth in the past few years.
Ans : (D)
38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of
employees.
Ans : (C)
39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Ans : (D)
38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of
employees.
Ans : (C)
39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Ans : (C)
40. Most companies across sectors have decided to increase their manpower requirement
manifold.
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four
combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of
that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters,
mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer. Letter :
T A G R S D N E V U X P
Digit/Symbol Code :
@ 4 9 # % 3 ©5 1 β7 6
Conditions—
(i) if the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel only the first letter may be coded and no
code
may be given to the last letter.
(ii) if both the first and last letters are vowels then both are to be coded as $.
(iii) if the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then the codes are to be interchanged.
41. DESGRT
(A) 35%9#
(B) 35%9#@
(C) @5%9#3
(D) 359%#@
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
42. NERSPU
(A) @5#%6@
(B) @5#56©
(C) ©5#%6
(D) ©5#%6β
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
43. XNTPGA
(A) 7©@694
(B) 7©@964
(C) 4©@69
(D) 7©@69
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. ESVNTU
(A) $%1©@$
(B) 5%1©@β
(C) $%1©@β
(D) $%1©β 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
45. UXPTGN
(A) ©76@9β
(B) $76@9©
(C) β 76@9©
(D) β 76@9B
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement,
followup or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in
the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the
suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Given answer—
(A) if only Course of action I follows.
(B) if only Course of action II follows.
(C) if either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
(D) if neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.
46. Statement : An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are
unemployable. Courses of action :
I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.
Ans : (A)
(D) if neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.
46. Statement : An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are unemployable.
Courses of action :
I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.
Ans : (A)
47. Statement : Heavy rains hit the state during October, just before the State Assembly elections
and caused heavy damage to standing crops in most parts of the state.
Courses of action :
I. Elections should be postponed to give candidates the opportunity to campaign.
II. The Government should announce a relief package for those who are affected.
Ans : (B)
48. Statement : Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are not as attractive as promoted by
telecome companies and complained to regulatory authority about the same.
Courses of action :
I. The regulatory authority should direct telecome companies to be transparent on the tariff structure of
all plans.
II. The government should restrict the number of telecome companies operating in the country.
Ans : (A)
49. Statement : A number of school children in the local schools have fallen ill after the consumption
of their subsidised tiffin provided by the school authority.
Courses of action :
I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school.
Ans : (B)
50. Statement : The dolphin population in India has been decreasing sharply over the past few years.
Courses of action :
I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species and be bred in aquariums or protected areas.
II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 51 –60) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow :
A Research Institute is recruiting a libration to digitise its information resources among other duties.
Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must :
I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01 112009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria
fulfilled
he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year ’s
experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the
recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the
information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1112009.
Mark answer :
(A) if he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) if he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.
51. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on
July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University
where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
Ans : (B)
52. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental
Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and
Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.
Ans : (D)
53. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC
NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her
first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to
December 2001.
Ans : (B)
54. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and
Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1 101974. Since July 2005, he has
been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Ans : (A)
55. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi
University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the
Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the
required date.
Ans : (A)
56. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she
has as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Ans : (A)
57. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian
since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and
Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17101973.
Ans : (B)
58. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She
obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she
was 26.
Ans : (E)
59. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this
he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He
graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the
specified date.
Ans : (A)
60. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he
began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research instiute.
He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library
Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22101974.
Ans : (D)